text:
Past LSAT Explained/PrepTest 27

Back to Past LSAT Explained LSAT Form 8LSS38

Question 01
Question type: Point at issue (A)Freeman does not dispute the numerical figure but rather what it means. (B)Correct. Powell says private companies operate more cheaply because they are qualitatively better, but Freeman says it is because they pick and choose their clients. (C)Tempting, but Powell never mentioned this reason, so they can't disagree about it. (D)Out of the blue and beyond the scope. (E)Again tempting, but not the core issue of disagreement between the two. Powell would say that private companies serve customers of all needs more cheaply because they are better, but Freeman would say they simply avoid high-cost customers.

Question 02
Question type: Flaw The conclusion that 80% of people don't know enough is based on the fact that 80% of people don't understand DNA properly. Thus, the argument is: Knowing about DNA means you know enough to make good decisions. (A)This actual helps the argument- it's not a flaw. (B)Nothing said about collective decisions in the question. (C)No causal relationship between these two in the question (D)Correct. This is the flaw noted above. (E)Confusing because the numbers look promising, but it's adding and subtracting stats from different places.

Question 03
Question Type: Inference Yasukawa concludes that size is a determinant of survival. However, the speaker disagrees, pointing out that size differences are likely caused by age. (A)This is the opposite of what we need. (B)This contradicts the prompt. (C)This is backwards; it reverses the size-->survival relationship incorrectly. (D)Correct. The speaker points out that the "size" determinant for survival is probably actually age based, so in group the same age, size is no longer relevant. (E)Random much?

Question 04
Question Type: Weaken (I think) (A)Correct. The issue here is size and age, not age among different species. This choice would be a misunderstanding. Remember that weaken questions often have information that seems outside they scope. For weaken questions, start with assuming truth in the answer choices and seeing how it affects the validity of the question. (B)Irrelevant. Does not address size or age. (C)Irrelevant. (D)That would weaken his claim effectively, so it is NOT a misunderstanding. (E)That would weaken his claim effectively, so it is NOT a misunderstanding.

Question 05
Question Type: Strengthen (A)Unrelated to both Japan and the 1980's (B)That might explain how people could afford the paintings, but nothing says that them having the money means they would use it to buy this specific kind of art. (C)Correct. Provides support for the assertion that there's a "specific preference...for certain aesthetic attributes". (D)It think it's trying to say that they became cheaper in the 1980's, but this does not explain their popularity in Japan. (E)This does support the argument's conclusion, which is that Japanese collectors prefer these specific paintings.

Question 06
Question Type: Structure Anna analogizes cloudberries and cacao and demonstrates that increasing demand might actually take income out of the hands of gatherers and give it to farmers, thus invalidating Frankie's point. (A)She never says that this would benefit everyone-quite the opposite, actually. (B)Frankie doesn't present any evidence for her to reinterpret. (C)Correct. She compares the current cloudberry situation with the past cacao situation. (D)Nope, the argument stays very specific. (E)She's not comparing cloudberries and cacao as products, just their economic aspects.

Question 07
Question Type: Resolve Important thing to note:it is "most widely read magazines" that are in danger of failing, not magazines in general. (A)That would explain the decrease in revenue but not the financially successful ones. (B)Off topic (C)Correct. This explains why decreased ad revenue hurts only the most widely read mags and also explains how smaller mags are staying afloat. (D)This does not explain they there are many financially successful mags. (E)Explains the number of successful magazines but not does not resolve the discrepancy.

Question 08
Question Type: Weaken (A)If owls do not eat red squirrels, the poison doesn't affect them. This HELPS the argument. (B)Rodents that will eat the poison will be eaten by owls, so the owls might be harmed too. This is counterproductive and highlights a weakness in the argument. (C)Irrelevant. We only care about the owls. (D)It still kills the trees and harms the owls. Supports the argument. (E)This might save other small animals that could eat the poison, but we only care about saving OWLS.

Question 09
Question Type: Inference/Resolve The manager says that the total number of meals increased, but the accountant says individually each restaurant sold fewer. By simple math, there have to be some new restaurants. (A)Correct. Just what we were looking for. (B)This does not explain how they sold more meals. (C)Since we're only talking about two internal sales figures, competition is irrelevant. (D)That doesn't help- cheaper would explain the manager, pricier would explain the accountant, but price alone doesn't tell us how both could be right. (E)Same as B.

Question 10
Question Type: Weaken The accountant's argument: The reason sales are down at all older restaurants is that desirability has decreased. We need another reason to answer WHY sales are down. (A)New meals might have been either more or less desirable. This doesn't directly affect the argument. (B)This says sales might be low, but it does not address WHY, which is what we need to weaken the argument. (C)These must be new restaurants since we know all older ones did NOT increase sales. Thus, they are irrelevant. (D)Since we're speaking of overall sales, the number of a certain type of meals is irrelevant. (E)Correct. This weakens the argument by supplanting the information that the accountant uses as a premise. Maybe desirability is the same (or better), but people don't have the money to spend on eating out.

Question 11
Question Type:Parallel the Reasoning First diagram the stimulus argument: X(pesticides) can cause Y(sterility). Now, Y has happened, so X is definitely causes Y. Now compare. (A)Way too many elements- horses' tetanus frequency vs. other animals. Not parallel. (B)Correct. X(low calcium) can cause Y(fewer eggs). Now, Y has happened, so X must be the cause. Perfect! You can stop here, but in the support of thoroughness: (C) If you are X(undernourished) you are likely to have Y(infection). Certain animals are NOT X, so they must not be Y. Nope. (D) X(apes) are defined as having Y(thumbs) and Z(no tail). This fossil has Y, so it must be an example of X. Not parallel AND bad logic. (E)X(track) is only caused by Y(bears). Since Y does not exist, X is not really X. Not parallel.

Question 12
Question Type: Support High temps make fibers go to their original states. Cotton fibers are naturally curly. Cotton clothes shrink when washed in hot water because their fibers curl up. Polyester clothes don't. So, you can figure out their fibers don't go curly, so their natural state must be straight. (A)We don't know anything about fiber behavior at low temps. Nope. (B)That doesn't make any sense, since the natural fibers will curl up whether they are part of the garment or all of it. (C)This makes sense, since they're curly naturally, but it doesn't address most of the stimulus. (D)This may be true, but we have no proof of that. (E)Correct. Exactly what we were looking for.

Question 13
Question Type: Assumption (A)We don't know that developed countries make the money by charging fines. (B)We are discussing internal pollution problems, so other countries are irrelevant. (C)Correct. The stimulus says that industrial development improves pollution issues once it gets past the early stage, so we have to assume that the $5000 per capita is coming from industry if we want to use that as our solution. If we don't make this assumption, we could say that Country X is a leading gatherer of, say, cloudberries, and although their GDP might increase, it won't be due to industry and thus will not have a positive effect on pollution. (D)There is another assumption that X has already begun development, so this doesn't work. (E)It really doesn't matter what other countries are doing...we only have eyes for X.

Question 14
Question Type: Structure The critic's argument: Although popular theories don't explain the psyche, they have more success therapeutically than more scientific ones. (A)There is no evidence give to disprove. (B)Correct. (C)The prompt states that popular theories don't explain things, so this isn't it. (D)The critic never says what he things is most important. (E)Tempting, but no. They are powerful, but they do NOT have explanatory power, only therapeutic power.

Question 15
Question type: Structure Argument in a nutshell: Tony says that fewer anarchists are violent than other people, so anarchism and violence don't necessarily go together. Keisha says that the percentage of violent anarchists might be high because there are fewer of them than other folk. (A)Correct, number vs. proportions is the issue here. (B)Neither Keisha nor Tony ever offers any factual evidence. Nope. (C)She does not argue that there are numerically few violent anarchists, so nope. (D)She does not compare the groups qualitatively. (E)She does not question what qualifies as an "anarchist".

Question 16
Question Type: Strengthen Argument: Recent research contradicts the classical theory by showing that sound change is gradual. Because the classical theory is wrong, we should toss out all sound-change theory. The key here is "sound theory in general" as opposed to "classical theory." (A)That would support throwing out classical theory, but not ALL theory as the speaker argues. (B)It doesn't matter if they're random; we're looking at gradual vs. sudden. (C)Interesting, but "unpredictable ways" does not tell us anything about the focus of the argument (gradual vs. sudden). (D)Correct. This explains why we would need to throw out ALL sound change theory (because it's based on faulty info) instead of just the classical theory. (E)Irrelevant. We apparently DO have some info on sound change, enough to spawn a bunch of theories.

Question 17
Question Type: Structure Argument: Laws to make a group happy can only be made if that group has stable goals, and since it is obvious that stable societies have laws that increase people's happiness, therefore stable society depends on its citizens having stable goals. (A)The conclusion is "stable societies depend on citzens' stable goals." Nope. (B)Correct. It is one of the premises. (C)It supports the argument, so it doesn't need to be refuted. (D)It is a premise, not a consequence. (E)There is no underlying principle stated, so no go.

Question 18
Question Type: Strengthen Conclusion: Motion sickness is caused when the inner ear and the eye send conflicting signals to the brain. (A)Correct. In a windowless cabin, the room would look steady, but the ear would sense motion, so motion sickness is likely. This is an example to support the conclusion. (B)How often you get motion sickness doesn't explain the cause. (C)This weakens the conclusion, so no. (D)This also weakens the conclusion. (E)Some people being less susceptible does not address the cause of motion sickness.

Question 19
Question Type: Inference Facts: Allergens use histamine to cause symptoms, and antihistamines stop symptoms by blocking histamine and also do other things. Histamine has nothing to do with colds. (A)No causal relationship between pollen and colds is mentioned either way. (B)No evidence for relative seriousness. (C)Too strong. Antihistamines could be GREAT for colds, they just don't do it by blocking histamine. (D)Although antihistamines can cause drowsiness, we don't know that they effectively treat sleeplessness. (E)Correct. Since colds and histamine are unrelated, any good the meds do is unrelated to histamine blocking.

Question 20
Question Type: Most supported Summary: Poem- art using musical aspects of language. Novels- sometimes art, usually not musical. Symphony- may be art, rarely uses language. Limerick- [poem] may use musical aspects, isn't art. (A)Nowhere does the speaker claim this is an exhaustive list. Painting? Sculpture? Concerto? Nope. (B)Blank verse could use a different musical aspect (such as meter) and still be a poem. (C)Correct. Since a poem is ANY piece of art that uses musical aspect, yes. The description of novels says they do not usually involve musical aspects, not that they can't, so this is not a contradiction. (D)This is a contradiction since the question defines poems AS works of art. No such thing as nonartistic poetry, at least not in this question. (E)The whole definition of symphony is qualified by "may," so we can't draw any conclusions there.

Question 21
Question Type: Assumption (A)If they hadn't upped the amount, the competition to get the comm equipment in would be even more intense. (B)Correct. It would only help ease repression if it's used by people who are not the government, so this is an important assumption (C)Whether or not the legislators like the argument has nothing to do with the logic of the people making it. (D)They don't say theirs is the most effective, only that it would limit repression. Maybe there's something else even more effective than communications (weapons?), but it does not affect the validity of the statement that comm equipment would help. (E)This would strengthen the argument, but it is not an underlying assumption.

Question 22
Question type: Inference Facts: Some people say that being hierarchical completely defines an organization. Bureaucratic orgs are all hierarchical. The PWD is bureaucratic [and thus hierarchical], but it is different than most other bureaucratic [and thus hierarchical] orgs. (A)We don't know what the PWD does operate like, only that it's different from most. (B)Faulty backwards logic. (C)Again, backwards logic. Maybe we can conclude, maybe not. It's unclear (D)Correct. Since the PWD is hierarchical and bureaucratic and not like other hierarchical and bureaucratic orgs, some hierarchical ones (ie the PWD) must be different. (E)We already know that bureaucratic orgs are hierarchical, so this is clearly false.

Question 23
Question Type: Flaw (A)The stat is 90% of insomniacs drink coffee, not the other way around. We don't have any percentages on people who drink coffee. (B)We don't even need other causes, since not even a single valid cause is presented. (C)Correct. We don't know about coffee causing insomnia at all. Maybe insomniacs drink coffee because they're tired. (D)Tom is not part of the class of individuals in the statistic, so this is a moot point. (E)The "always" is too strong, especially since we're we have a number that does not equal 100.

Question 24
Question Type: Strengthen (A)Accuracy would seem to support the point about people being confused, but that's misleading. The confusion in question is due to volume of information, not questionable validity. Modern readers and writers could be overwhelmed by large volume of accurate information, which would not cause mental self-reliance. (B)The folklorist does not say that modern communication is inefficient. (C)This topic is off topic. (D)Correct. This is basically a more convincing paraphrase of the last sentence. (E)The folklorist implies that oral tradition values the useful and relevant; useful and relevant things could be unclear.

Question 25
Question type: Flaw Argument: We should not ask about hobbies because enthusiasm shown for hobbies might indicated lack of dedication to work, even though some people say enthusiasm might carry over to the job. Also, this is an except question, so the wrong answers are ALL flaws, ie reasons we SHOULD ask about hobbies. (A)Since long-term commitments is good for jobs, asking about hobbies is in order. (B)Correct. Since a hobby probably gives applicants a boost, fake hobbies make candidates seem deceptively better than they are. We should avoid the issue and not ask. This strengthens the argument and is thus NOT a flaw. (C)Honest responses are good, so we should ask about hobbies. (D)Organizational skills are good, so we should ask about hobbies. (E)Better choices are good, so...you get the point.

Question 26
Question type: Parallel Diagram the argument: Mostdreams don't come true, so a few positive ones don't mean you're psychic. The majority of dreams support NOT being psychic, even if a few examples provide evidence you are. (A)The question looks at a body of incidences (all the dreams of a person) and shows that the negative events are in the majority. There is no body of evidence ("more subjects needed") for this answer choice. (B)This says many not most. Pay attention to qualifiers! (C)Again, many. (D)Correct. Mostpeople don't die of aspirin, so even a few deaths don't mean aspiring is deadly. (E)Significant number is not most.

Section III Reading Comprehension
Passage I Partiality in the Courtroom (Law) jury. change of venue voir dire.

Question 07
Passage 2

Question 01
IDENTIFY This is a Principle question.

READ A politician introduces a government tax policy. He is proposing a sin tax.

ANALYZE The passage is short enough to apply to each choice directly. (A) Incorrect. We know sugar is bad for your health but the tax regime proposed here is to raise revenue to pay for the health costs arising from consuming sugar. In fact, people and the government may benefit from increased consumption of sugar products if the negative impact of sugar is offset by the better health care paid by the tax.

(B) Incorrect. The study shows that the tax would not have an effect on the consumption of the pain reliever. The principle requires the tax discouraging the consumption of an undesirable product.

(C) Correct. The tax on the pesticide achieves what it is intended- to discourage the continued use.

(D) Incorrect. This is an opposite of the tax regime proposed by the politician. Tax is not raised to prevent decreased consumption.

(E) Incorrect. Enticing but here tax is actually lowered.

CHOOSE (C) conforms perfectly with the politician's principle.

Question 03
IDENTIFY This is a conclusion question.

READ Yasukawa's study on blackbirds

Question 17
IDENTIFY This is a Inference question.

READ : the Green Ensemble -> financially dependent on corporate contributions; IF (any of the Green Ensemble's corporate sponsors had withdrawn their financial support) -> THEN (the theater group forced to disband this year)

ANALYZE given the use of the word any in the conditional statement above, even one sponsor withdrawing would have then led to the group's disbanding this year. the conclusion then states that the Green Ensemble has been able to continue operating this year. meaning that the theatre group was NOT forced to disband this year -> therefore, NO sponsors withdrew support

(B) Incorrect. Cannot be inferred from the stimulus.

(C) Incorrect. This choice is also not supported from the stimulus as it contains the assumption that the group's continued operation through the next 2 years means increased funding. It could be that corporate funding has stayed consistent, the total amount of funding brought in has not increased nor decreased.

(D) Incorrect. We know that the theatre group is financially dependent on corporate sponsors to operate. No info in the stimulus is given regarding the income the group makes.

(E) Incorrect. Similar to C. We don't know if this is true nor can we properly infer it to be close to true from the stimulus.

CHOOSE (A) this answer choice matches my conditional statement above next to ANALYZE.

Section III Logical Reasoning
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title: Past LSAT Explained/PrepTest 27


text:
Past LSAT Explained/PrepTest 01

Form 2LSS11 June 1991

Section I Reading Comprehension
This section has 28 questions.

Passage 1 Art/Humanity

 * Phillis Weatley
 * African American literature
 * English poetry
 * Black English
 * 1761
 * neoclassical poetry
 * oral tradition

Question 01
This is a Main Idea and Global question.

(A) Incorrect. This is certainly feasible since Philis Wheatley employed few principles of African oral tradition in her work. However, this is not what the passage is trying to say.

(B) Incorrect. This choice fails to mention Wheatley's lack of contribution to the distinct African American literary language.

(C) Correct. Excellent. This choice expresses Wheatley's accomplishment and shortcoming.

(D) Incorrect. This is not the main idea and not true based on the passage. Line 54 states that her poetry contributed little. She may have started the Black American poetry but she did not play a role in the development of the distinct voice. For the most part, her poetry was overwhelmingly conventional.

(E) Incorrect. Her poetry did not contribute to preserving the principles of African oral tradition since her work reflected little of her experience and heritage.

When you are unsure of the passage's main idea, it may be helpful to answer other local questions first to gain a better understanding of the main point.

Question 02
This is an analogy and Local question.

This question asks you to find a parallel situation. This question is not too difficult because it uses only one example- Italian immigrant in America, instead of using five different examples to confuse the testtakers and to make it hard to contrast among the choices. If you have a good grasp of Wheatley's approach that she conformed to the conventions without incorporating her nonconventional heritage and experiences.

(A) Incorrect. No translation of the African American traditions.

(B) Incorrect. She was strictly English.

(C) Incorrect. She contributed little as mentioned in Line 54.

(D) Incorrect. She did not do this. If this choice to become true, it should read, "defined artistic expression in terms of eighteenth-century American poetic conventions"

(E) Correct.

Question 03
This is a very Local question.

To answer this question, look at Line 23 where it says "but also exerted demonstrable effects on the manner in which other Americans spoke English."

(A) Incorrect.

(B) Incorrect.

(C) Incorrect.

(D) Correct.

(E) Incorrect.

Question 04
This is a Local question.

Question 08
Some extra questions to Consider:

08.1 What is the purpose of the first paragraph?

Provide the context of Wheatley's accomplishment over the obstacles when she wrote her poetry

08.2 What is the purpose of the second paragraph?

Discuss the Opportunity for Wheatley to bridge the Oral(African) and Written(English) Literary Culture

08.3 What is the purpose of the third paragraph?

Explain that Wheatley's Poetry did take advantage of her African Experience but rather conformed to the English conventions

08.4 What is the purpose of the fourth paragraph?

Explain that Wheatley's poetry contributed little to African American literary language

08.5 Which of the following situation is the most analogous to the author mentioning Wheatley is "justly celebrated as the first Black American poet"(Line 59-60)?

Professor Michael praising Beowulf as the first epic poem written in England despite the fact that it was written in Anglo-Saxon and had little influence in the development of modern English.

08.6 Which one of the following most accurately characterizes the author's attitude toward Wheatley's contribution to the development of a distinctive American American literary language?

unfortunate that she made little contribution because of the limits of the eighteenth century English literary code

08.7 The passage as a whole can best be described as

Assessment of Wheatley's Accomplishment in the context of her time

08.8 By "reigning conventions"(Line 45) the author means

(A) The aesthetic princeiples of the African oral traditions

(B) Wheatley's African heritage

(C) The formal literary code of eighteenth century

(D) English spoken by the Black People to which Wheatley was familar

(E) African aesthetic canons

08.9 Which

Passage 2 Natural Science

 * cytology
 * protoplasm
 * enzyme
 * electron microscopy
 * molecular genetics
 * molecular biology
 * cellular biology
 * Joseph Fruton

Question 16
16.1 To introduce a general pattern which is exemplified by the relationship in life science

By citing the example that "In the case of late nineteenth century cell research, progress was fueled by competition among the avrious attitudes and issues" (Line 54-55), the author

Illustrates his idea that the interaction between the two disciplines can have important results

16.2 By quoting Joseph Fruton, the author

emphasizes that the importance of competition in making progress both in the past and the future

16.3 What is the purpose of the first paragraph?

Introduce a pattern seen in the early stage of development of a scientific discipline which is used in the next to describe the historical development of a new field

16.4 What is the purpose of the second paragraph?

16.5 What is the purpose of the third paragraph?

16.6 What is the purpose of the fourth paragraph?

Passage 3 Law

 * criminal procedure
 * public prosecutor
 * adversarial system
 * inquisitorial system
 * Pretrial investigation
 * forensic
 * legal anthropology
 * discovery

Question 21
21.1 What is the purpose of paragraph 1?

Passage 4 Social Science

 * physician
 * Medical ethics
 * medical malpractice
 * definition of "trade"
 * definition of "profession"

Question 13
Game 3

Question 18
Game 4

Question 01

 * bacteria
 * antibiotic
 * sugar

IDENTIFY

This is a Discrepancy question.

READ

Sugar's medicinal use in treating inflection.

ANALYZE

Let's find a choice that links sugar with antibiotic property. Structure is THESIS + ANTITHESIS

CHOOSE

(A) Correct. Sugar basically dehydrates bacteria and bacteria need water.

(B) Incorrect. Just throwing some side facts to confuse you. Who cares if sugar is not available. We are concerned with sugar's property not its feasibility as a medical treatment

(C) Incorrect. This strongly weakens the passage. Sugar promotes bacterial growth! This does not explain the passage at all. This choice might have been correct if this choice was a Weaken question.

(D) Incorrect. This choice introduces some complex relationship into the passage. But remember the passage does not mention using the antibiotic and sugar together. Moreover, it does not say that the physicians used some food that contain sugar. This fact is certainly a concern if the antibiotic is used with the sugar treatment and requires more research. But this does not explain the phenomenon at all.

(E) Incorrect. The fact that sugar can be used as a crude antibiotic is mentioned in 2007 film Shooter. Supposedly this practice was common during the Napoleonic Wars. So what? It only shows the knowledge of sugar's medicinal effect is ancient. It does not explain why.

This was your first question of the section. Gain confidence and warm up your logic engine. Get ready for some serious logical reasoning.

Question 02

 * Color blindness
 * sinusitis
 * jaundice
 * diabetic

IDENTIFY

This is a Parallel Reasoning question. READ

Some color blindness discussion. This could well be a Flaw question because there is a flaw in the reason. This question can be tricky since the answer should contain the same logical error. By not phrasing this question as "which of the following the similar error in reasoning", the question does not give you a clue that there is an error.

ANALYZE

The flaw is that the red/green color blind people are not the only ones who cannot distinguish between green and brown. There may be some people who are not red/green color-blind and Gerald could be a member of that group. The logic does not preclude that loophole.

The structure of the argument is: Major Premise, Minor Premise, Conclusion

CHOOSE

(A) Incorrect. This is a sound logic. The structure is same- Major Premise, Minor Premise, Conclusion. This does not have the flaw discussed earlier.

(B) Correct. This choice commits the same kind of flaw. People with sinusitis may not be the only one who lose their sense of smell. Pretend that people who ace the LSAT lose the sense of smell but do not suffer from sinusitus. Mary may well be a member of this group. This is a common type of flaw tested in the LSAT over and over. If X→Y. Z→Y. So Z→X. (invalid)

(C) Incorrect. This is a good logic without the flaw. If X→ NOT Y.(Contrapositive: Y→NOT X) Z→Y. So Z→NOT X.

(D) Incorrect. If X→NOT Y. Z→X. So Z→NOT Y.

(E) Incorrect. This choice is a bit strange. This choice has a hidden assumption that there is some special diet consists of small amount of sugar. The conclusion that Freda is on a special diet is not a proper one- a better one would be "Freda cannot have a large amounts of sugar."

This question is difficult for Number 2 requiring a good knowledge of formal logic and contrapositive. Writing each choice into algebraic logic notation is helpful but not necessary.

Question 03

 * Alfred Wegener
 * Continental drift
 * postulate
 * philosophy of science

IDENTIFY

This is a Conclusion question.

READ

This one is like a mini reading comprehension question.

ANALYZE

CHOOSE

(A) Incorrect.

(B) Incorrect.

(C) Incorrect.

(D) Incorrect.

(E) Correct.

Question 04

 * military deterrence

Question 23

 * management consultant

Question 24

 * morality
 * advertising

From "Modern Soviet Criminal Procedure: A Critical Analysis" by Christopher Osakwe. Tulane Law Review, Volume 57, Number 3, February 1983. Copyright 1983 Tulane Law Review Association.

From "Professing Medically: The Place of Ethics in Defining Medicine" by Leon R. Kass. The Journal of the American Medical Association, Volume 249, pages 1305-1310. Copyright 1983 by The American Medical Association.

|01

license: Creative Commons - Attribution Share-Alike - https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/4.0/

title: Past LSAT Explained/PrepTest 01


text:
Past LSAT Explained/PrepTest 02

Passage 1 Art/Humanity

 * 1926
 * The Weary Blues
 * Carolina sea islands
 * 1916
 * Langston Hughes
 * Harry T. Burleigh
 * Saint George's Episcopal Church
 * Jubilee Songs of the United States
 * African American literature
 * oral tradition
 * hyperbole
 * monologue
 * irony

Question 06
06.1 The primary purpose of the paragraph one is to Charts the development of Langston Hughes' breakaway from the two well established traditions in African American literature

06.2 The primary purpose of the paragraph two is to

06.4 The author quotes "in the manner of an art song" (line 29) to illustrate that

how the African American literary tradition is accepted and integrated under the condition that it is Europeanized and conform the Western European literary style

06.5 Which of the following best describe the author's attitude toward Langston Hughes' acomplishment? admiration

06.6 Which of the following is most analogous to the example that Saint George's Episcopal Church publishing Jubilee Songs of the United States?

The Japanese haiku poet who enthusiastically embracing the American literary techiques and styles in order to be accessible to the wide North American audience

Passage 2 Social Science

 * railroad
 * Industrial Revolution
 * Hawthorne
 * Thoreau
 * Henry James
 * Sinclair Lewis
 * Scott Fitzerald
 * Frank Norris
 * Eugene O'Neill
 * Henry Adams

B - the "romantic-era distrust" of the railroad that he claims was present during the 1830s ... Stilgoe is wrong to imply that the critical attitude of these writers was typical of the period

Question 07
B - ... writers like Henry James, Sinclair Lewis, or F.Scott Fitzgerald, what comes through in spite of Stilgoe's analysis is remarkably like Thoreau's feeling of contrariety and ambivalence

Question 08
E - Stilgoe's assertion that the ambivalence toward the railroad exhibited by writers like Hawthorne and Thoreau disappeared after the 1880s is also misleading ... Stilgoe has unearthed an impressive volume of material, the work of hitherto unknown illustrators, journalists, and novelists

Question 09
D - It is clearly from the passage that Stilgoe, irrespective to the correctness of his remarks, used popular culture forms to support his thesis about the existence of a measurable attitude towards an innovation, the railroad.

Question 13
Game 3

Question 18
Game 4

Question 1
IDENTIFY

This is a Parallel Reasoning question with some element of a Flaw question.

READ

The author is arguing using an analogy.

ANALYZE

The analogy employed in the question is that seeing something else being done causes the viewer to be affected in a certain, favorable way. By doing so, the author is using a supposedly analogous case- someone eating. This question could very well be a Weaken or Strengthen question. The author takes entirely different situations to arrive at his conclusion. Witnessing violence and watching someone else eat are entirely different situations, as one might argue thus analogy may not work. Your task is to find a choice with a similar structure, preferably with the flaw.

CHOOSE

(A) Incorrect. A good candidate for the answer- shoplifting and taking supplies at work for own personal use are a bit different. But they are similar enough to not warrant an automatic answer status. Let's go through all the questions.

(B) Incorrect. No analogy here. The structure is obviously different.

(C) Incorrect. Wrong. For this question to be correct, the choice should look like this:

Some people think that boxing and westling matches managed by the same sort of people will be fixed. Are baseball and basketball fixed as they are managed by the exactly same group of people?

(D) Correct. Good. Economists and meteorologists are entirely different. You can cross out Choice A.

(E) Incorrect. For this choice to be correct, it should look like this:

Some people think workaholics are compensating for a lack of interpersonal skills. But are the presidents and TV show hosts, who are known to be workaholics compensating for their poor interpersonal skills?

Question 2
IDENTIFY This is a Point-at-Issue question. You should be able to recognize the question type by seeing the dialogue form of the question.

READ

ANALYZE

CHOOSE

Question 3
IDENTIFY

READ

ANALYZE

CHOOSE

Question 3
|02

title: Past LSAT Explained/PrepTest 02


text:
Past LSAT Explained/PrepTest 07

LSAT Form 3LSS18

Section I Logical Reasoning
There are 25 questions in this section.

 * 1) Question 1: Note the argument is that the increase in demand for printed books showed there was also a corresponding increase in literacy.
 * 2) * A is incorrect because it refers only to writing and not to reading.
 * 3) * B is incorrect because, if true, does nothing to explain the difference in those who could read before the use of the printing press versus after. This answer merely states that those who can read can also write.
 * 4) * C is correct because connects the behavior of a group of people from before the use of the printed press to after. It explains that the decreased cost allowed the same number of people to purchase more books. If true, this casts doubt on the original argument that the increased demand demonstrated an increase in the number of purchasers.
 * 5) * D is incorrect because, if true, it would not indicate a increased demand in printed books. By sharing/reusing the same book multiple times the demand would actually decrease. Also, it does not mention whether this sharing behavior was equally common before the use of the printing press. This answer focuses strictly on the usage of books after the creation of the printing press.
 * 6) * E is incorrect because it does not indicate whether or not the manuscripts were typically heavily illustrated in a way that would be useful to illiterate people. This answer also focuses strictly on the usage of books after the creation of the printing press.
 * 7) Question 2: This question explains how an artificial sweetener was determined to be safe for people by showing that only a vary large quantity would be dangerous.
 * 8) * A is incorrect because how quickly the cancer develops does not answer the question.
 * 9) * B is incorrect because how dangerous other additives also does not relate to the artificial sweetener being discussed.
 * 10) * C is correct because if people consume far less than the dangerous amount of the sweetener, then the sweetener can be determined safe for common use. Once people begin consuming close to the dangerous amount of the sweetener, then the argument that it is safe is no longer valid.
 * 11) * D is incorrect because, even if true, does not answer the question.
 * 12) * E is incorrect because it directly refers to studies not relevant the question.
 * 13) Question 3: The question asks about Judith's response to Harry's assertion.
 * 14) * A is incorrect because if the majority of the people are rich, then most would be able to afford air travel. This would contradict Judith's response indicating that she believes the opposite to be true.
 * 15) * B is incorrect because it discusses whether or not people have the right to air travel, while Judith's response is focused on their financial ability.
 * 16) * C is incorrect because it focuses on what areas of the world are accessible by airplane, while Judith's response is focused on on people's financial ability to fly.
 * 17) * D is incorrect because extends the scope to other forms of travel and is no longer exclusive to airplanes.
 * 18) * E is correct. When Harry says (in summary) "Anyone can fly", Judith responds with (again in summary) "Flights are too expensive". This shows that she interpreted Harry's statement to mean that anyone is financially capable of flight, which is addressed in this answer choice.
 * 19) Question 4: The question asks how an ad is misleading by stating that a pill contains "44% fiber".
 * 20) * A is incorrect because it refers to other products on the market, not the pill in the question.
 * 21) * B is incorrect because it focuses on the uses of fiber, rather than whether or not the ad is misleading.
 * 22) * C is incorrect because it also refers to other products on the market and not the pill in the question. Also, whether or not the product is addictive would not have any bearing about how the ad was misleading about the product's fiber content.
 * 23) * D is incorrect because it shifts the focus to the label on the product, rather than the product's advertisement.
 * 24) * E is correct. This answer states that the recommended daily fiber intake is 20 - 30 grams, so about half of that would be 10-15 grams of fiber. This is much greater than one-third gram, which indicates that although it is possible that 44% of the pill itself is fiber it does not contain 44% of the recommended daily intake of fiber.
 * 25) Question 5: Environmentalists urge consumers to choose products that are not directly nor indirectly harmful to the environment, but the question indicates that it is usually impossible for consumers to determine how harmful each product is. The question asks why there can be no moral duty for consumers to choose products the way that the environmentalists advocate.
 * 26) * A is incorrect because it does not address the impossibility of the action in the question.
 * 27) * B is correct because in the second sentence of the question's setup the author indicates that a person cannot be held morally accountable for taking an action they do not know how to avoid.
 * 28) * C is incorrect because it focuses on how the products should be produced, not how they should be consumed.
 * 29) * D is incorrect because it does not address the impossibility that the setup addresses in the second sentence.
 * 30) * E is incorrect because it addresses other types of duties besides the moral duty described in the setup, which is beyond the scope of the question.
 * 31) Question 6: An advertisement establishes that physical exercise improves the condition of a body's lungs, heart, and muscles. It then makes the link that since physical exercise is good for the body, that mental exercise must be good for the brain.
 * 32) * A is incorrect because the ad does not cite experimental evidence, rather it cites anecdotal/personal evidence.
 * 33) * B is incorrect because the ad does not ridicule anyone.
 * 34) * C is incorrect because although the ad makes an analogy between physical and mental exercise, it does not explain why (or if) this analogy is accurate.
 * 35) * D is incorrect because the ad does not analyze the concept of exercise.
 * 36) * E is correct because it expounds on the analogy that if physical exercise is good for other organs, then mental exercise is good for the brain.
 * 37) Question 7: First of two questions with this setup. The setup discusses "the problem of reducing health-care costs". This question asks how the argument proceeds.
 * 38) * A is incorrect because although shifting costs is mentioned in the second sentence, the paragraph does not mention what the "premise" of health-care reimbursement would be.
 * 39) * B is incorrect because the setup never mentions any fraudulent behavior.
 * 40) * C is correct because after spending the first few sentences explaining how shifting costs prevents the government from truly reducing health-care costs, the example shows an instance where this is true. The analogy is where the author states that "...push in on one part of this ... balloon and an ... bulge pops up elsewhere."
 * 41) * D is incorrect because no alternatives are mentioned. Although the last sentence does provide an example, this example is not an alternative system but rather clarifies the central point of the paragraph.
 * 42) * E is incorrect because the example given does not demonstrate cooperation.
 * 43) Question 8: Second of two questions with this setup. Question asks which of the answer choices is supported by the argument made in the setup.
 * 44) * A is correct because it addresses the issue of shifting costs. By mentioning a comprehensive approach, this answer choice directly addresses the problem of the "piecemeal" system described in the original argument.
 * 45) * B is incorrect because the setup does not discuss either the resources available for funding nor the cost of health-care professionals.
 * 46) * C is incorrect because the funding for the health-care system is not addressed, so there is no way to determine if the costs are expanding to match this change. This answer also contradicts the argument's assertion that shifting costs is the crux of the problem (as opposed to additional funds).
 * 47) * D is incorrect because the argument does not mention medical technology nor its associated costs.
 * 48) * E is incorrect because the cost of unused hospital beds is not discussed in the original argument.
 * 49) Question 9: The question discusses how the public interprets an event based on its exposure in the commercial news and asks which answer choice is supported by the argument.
 * 50) * A is incorrect because it states an alternative form of the media as it is "better" and does not address how the public interprets the commercial news.
 * 51) * B is incorrect because it implies that the consumer's desires drive what the media chooses to cover, rather than addressing the question about how what the media chooses to cover affects the consumer.
 * 52) * C is incorrect because it is a statement about how people feel about events they cannot control, in general, rather than how people feel about events in the news. The original argument does not address this issue.
 * 53) * D is correct because is addresses the statement made in the last sentence of the argument. Regardless of the actual risk, consumers will typically infer that more extensively covered event is the most risky - regardless of whether or not this is true.
 * 54) * E is incorrect because, rather than answering the question, it offers an inference based on the information in the argument. Even if true this statement does mention how consumers would respond to extensive coverage of cholera instead of another rarer and less serious illness.
 * 55) Question 10:
 * 56) * A is incorrect because even though it is true that the paragraph does not show that the decrease is proportionate, it also does not claim this to be the case.
 * 57) * B is correct. The paragraph studies a group of children, with and without behavioral problems, and then changes the diet of all the children. Without a control group to see if there were any other potential causes for the decrease in behavior problems, the conclusion cannot be drawn that the change in diet is the cause.
 * 58) * C is incorrect because, even if true or partially true, the paragraph is discussing the percentage of the children rather than the exact number of children.
 * 59) * D is incorrect because the paragraph is discussing children who were affected by the dietary change, not children who weren't.
 * 60) * E is incorrect because it mentions the frequency of behavioral problems, but the paragraph only has two groups: children with or without behavioral problems. The paragraph never discusses the frequency of behavioral problems in the children of the latter group.
 * 61) Question 11: The paragraph describes that 10% of vehicles from the 1970s and 5% of vehicles from the 1960s received engine repairs in 1990, and asks which of the answer choices explains the discrepancy.
 * 62) * A is incorrect because it states that all cars must be inspected before prior to registration. In older, and thus more heavily used cars, there would most likely be more problems found. Since the cars from the 1960s are older than the cars from the 1970s, this does not address why fewer cars from the 1960s received repairs.
 * 63) * B is incorrect because it states that newer cars are driven more carefully than older cars. This implies that the newer cars would be in better condition and would thus need fewer repairs than older cars. This cannot explain why the newer, 1970s, cars received more repairs than the older, 1960s, cars.
 * 64) * C is correct because it addresses the discrepancy and offers a solution why the older cars, rather than the newer cars, received fewer repairs.
 * 65) * D is incorrect because the design of the engine is not discussed in the paragraph. Further, if it is assumed that a simpler engine lead to fewer repairs, it would further obscure why the 1970s cars received more repairs.
 * 66) * E is incorrect because it tries to explain how repairs on the 1960s cars could have been avoided, but does not address the discrepancy.
 * 67) Question 12: Shows how the perception of complex computer proofs/computations changed between 1976 and "today". The question asks which of the answer choices must be true, assuming all the statements in the paragraph are true.
 * 68) * A is correct based on the first sentence of the paragraph: "No mathematician today would flatly refuse to accept the results of an enormous computation...". This implies that even if they believe that a simple theorem should have a simple proof, that they would also accept the result of an enormous computation as proof.
 * 69) * B is incorrect because, although it may or may not be true, goes beyond the scope of the paragraph and question. The paragraph does not discuss non-mathematicians.
 * 70) * C is incorrect because it includes the term "individuals" rather than "mathematicians" specifically. Although there are individual mathematicians, there are also individuals who are not mathematicians so this choice exceeds the scope of this question.
 * 71) * D is incorrect because it also uses the group "individuals" and thus, like (C), also exceeds the scope of this question.
 * 72) * E is incorrect because it also goes out of the scope of the paragraph and question for the same reason as (B).
 * 73) Question 13: Can be best simplified using variables to represent different statements in the question. This reduces the question to: If X, then ~Y. Z unless X. Thus if Y, then Z.
 * 74) * A is incorrect because, following the same X, Y, Z pattern, the statement starts with "If ~X, then ~Y" as opposed to "If X, then ~Y".
 * 75) * B is incorrect for the same reason as (A).
 * 76) * C is correct because it follows the same pattern as the original: "If X, then ~Y. Z unless X. Thus if Y, then Z."
 * 77) * D is incorrect for the same reason as (A).
 * 78) * E is incorrect because it is of the form: "If X, then ~Y. Z unless X. If Y, then ~Z." This is very close to the original pattern, but the last sentence falls short as it should be "If Y, then Z" as opposed to ~Z.
 * 79) Question 14: This paragraph is about lobsters eating one another if caught in a trap.
 * 80) * A is incorrect because lobsters not caught in traps are not in the scope of the paragraph/question.
 * 81) * B is incorrect because the duration of time not affect the counterclaim.
 * 82) * C is incorrect because, even if true, it does not affect the assertion in the paragraph. Whether or not it is unusual to have eight lobsters in a trap does not help or hinder the counterclaim to the biologist's argument.
 * 83) * D is incorrect because members of other species, i.e. not lobsters, are not in the scope of the paragraph/question.
 * 84) * E is correct because if the lobsters are not hungry lobsters, then they will not eat each other. Thus, in order for the objection to be valid the lobsters that were in a trap for two months needed to be hungry. If they were not hungry, either because they eat less frequently than every couple months or because there was an alternate food source available, this would not be a valid objection.
 * 85) Question 15:
 * 86) * A is correct because it directly addresses the hunting ban. This answer shows that in similar areas with no hunting ban the deer population has not increased so drastically.
 * 87) * B is incorrect because, although it does strengthen the argument in the paragraph, it does not address how the ban affected motor vehicle accidents.
 * 88) * C is incorrect because the paragraph does not focus on how overpopulation damages the deer population, but rather on how overpopulation risks the safety of the human population.
 * 89) * D is incorrect because whether or not the humans give salt and etc. to the deer does not relate to how deer overpopulation is dangerous to humans. This answer also does not address whether this behavior started before, or after, the hunting ban.
 * 90) * E is incorrect because even if the deer do cause cosmetic damage to ornamental plants, there is no link established between how this is related to the hunting ban or human safety.
 * 91) Question 16: This paragraph is about how Halley's comet reflects less light than was initially assumed.
 * 92) * A is incorrect because the paragraph does not directly address the measured brightness of other comets.
 * 93) * B is correct because the paragraph directly states that the material "reflects 60 times less light per unit of mass". If the material is less reflective, then that means previous estimates were too low.
 * 94) * C is incorrect because the amount of light reflected is known. How much light per unit mass was unknown. (You could also say that the "how much light was reflected as a function of mass was unknown.)
 * 95) * D is incorrect because only Halley's comet is mentioned. Halley's comet could be an anomaly, or the statement could be true, or all comets could reflect less light per unit mass than was thought. The paragraph does not address this.
 * 96) * E is incorrect because how much additional information is needed is not addressed in the paragraph.
 * 97) Question 17: This is a statement by Office Manager about how he sees recycled paper as inferior, and a response by Stationary Supplier.
 * 98) * A is incorrect because the response DOES argue that the office manager's prejudice against recycled paper stems from ignorance.
 * 99) * B is correct because the claim that "from the beginning, the finest paper has been made of recycled material," is justified by the next sentence, which is irrelevant because it mentions two materials without making a claim about the quality of either one.
 * 100) * C is incorrect because the supplier response addresses quality, not environmental issues.
 * 101) * D is incorrect because, although it is true that the response deals with paper manufacturing, the response is not invalid because it presupposes understanding of technology. It's invalid because paper manufacturing technology is irrelevant to the concern that the Office Manager brought up about quality.
 * 102) * E is incorrect because the response does not ignore the concern about quality, it addresses it improperly.
 * 103) Question 18:
 * 104) * A is incorrect because
 * 105) * B is incorrect because
 * 106) * C is correct because
 * 107) * D is incorrect because
 * 108) * E is incorrect because
 * 109) Question 19:
 * 110) * A is incorrect because
 * 111) * B is incorrect because
 * 112) * C is correct because
 * 113) * D is incorrect because
 * 114) * E is incorrect because
 * 115) Question 20:
 * 116) * A is incorrect because
 * 117) * B is correct because
 * 118) * C is incorrect because
 * 119) * D is incorrect because
 * 120) * E is incorrect because
 * 121) Question 21:
 * 122) * A is incorrect because
 * 123) * B is correct because
 * 124) * C is incorrect because
 * 125) * D is incorrect because
 * 126) * E is incorrect because
 * 127) Question 22:
 * 128) * A is incorrect because
 * 129) * B is incorrect because
 * 130) * C is incorrect because
 * 131) * D is incorrect because
 * 132) * E is correct because
 * 133) Question 23:
 * 134) * A is incorrect because
 * 135) * B is incorrect because
 * 136) * C is incorrect because
 * 137) * D is correct because
 * 138) * E is incorrect because
 * 139) Question 24:
 * 140) * A is correct because
 * 141) * B is incorrect because
 * 142) * C is incorrect because
 * 143) * D is incorrect because
 * 144) * E is incorrect because
 * 145) Question 25: This passage is about a paradox between police data (anti theft devices reduce the risk of car theft) and insurance company data (cars with anti theft devices are more likely to be stolen), and asks for an appropriate resolution.
 * 146) * A is incorrect because doesn't address anti theft devices, the subject of the paradox.
 * 147) * B is incorrect because this statement supports one side of the paradox, but is contrary to the other side, and doesn't resolve anything.
 * 148) * C is incorrect because it is irrelevant; we have no data to suggest that either set of data is counting false alarms from audible alarm systems.
 * 149) * D is correct because it resolves the paradox - while anti theft devices reduce the risk of car theft, the people who buy them and put them in their cars are disproportionately more likely to be at high risk of car theft, so the cars themselves are less safe as a group.
 * 150) * E is incorrect because it would imply that anti theft devices are a non-issue, which both sides of the paradox seem to contradict.

Game 3

 * Type: Grouping

Question 13
If the two moderates didn't vote the same way, then they have spread their votes between for and against. Since the setup tells us that "At least one conservative coted against Datalog", we have this: C and L cannot be against because that will force both moderates to vote in the same way.
 * Type: Local

'''(A) Incorrect. (B) Correct. (C) Incorrect. (D) Incorrect. (E) Incorrect.

Question 14
You can solve this question by referring to the setup diagram we made in the beginning.
 * Type:Global

(A) Incorrect. (B) Incorrect. (C) Correct. (D) Incorrect. (E) Incorrect.

Question 15

(A) Incorrect. (B) Incorrect. (C) Incorrect. (D) Incorrect. (E) Correct.

Question 16

 * Type: Local

(A) Correct. (B) Incorrect. (C) Incorrect. (D) Incorrect. (E) Incorrect.

Question 17
(A) Incorrect. (B) Incorrect. (C) Incorrect. (D) Incorrect. (E) Correct.

Question 18
(A) Incorrect. (B) Correct. (C) Incorrect. (D) Incorrect. (E) Incorrect.

Passage 2 Art/Humanity

 * John Webster
 * The Duchess of Malfi
 * Elizabethan drama

Passage 3 Natural Science

 * Pseudomonas_fluorescens
 * Pseudomonas Syringae

Passage 4 Law

 * Dawes Act
 * Bureau of Indian Affairs
 * Native American

Section IV Logical Reasoning
There are 25 questions in this section.

 * 1) Question 1:
 * 2) * A is incorrect because
 * 3) * B is incorrect because
 * 4) * C is incorrect because
 * 5) * D is correct because
 * 6) * E is incorrect because
 * 7) Question 2:
 * 8) * A is incorrect because
 * 9) * B is incorrect because
 * 10) * C is incorrect because
 * 11) * D is incorrect because
 * 12) * E is correct because
 * 13) Question 3:
 * 14) * A is incorrect because
 * 15) * B is correct because
 * 16) * C is incorrect because
 * 17) * D is incorrect because
 * 18) * E is incorrect because
 * 19) Question 4:
 * 20) * A is incorrect because
 * 21) * B is incorrect because
 * 22) * C is incorrect because
 * 23) * D is incorrect because
 * 24) * E is correct because
 * 25) Question 5:
 * 26) * A is correct because
 * 27) * B is incorrect because
 * 28) * C is incorrect because
 * 29) * D is incorrect because
 * 30) * E is incorrect because
 * 31) Question 6:
 * 32) * A is incorrect because
 * 33) * B is incorrect because
 * 34) * C is correct because
 * 35) * D is incorrect because
 * 36) * E is incorrect because
 * 37) Question 7:
 * 38) * A is correct because
 * 39) * B is incorrect because
 * 40) * C is incorrect because
 * 41) * D is incorrect because
 * 42) * E is incorrect because
 * 43) Question 8:
 * 44) * A is incorrect because
 * 45) * B is incorrect because
 * 46) * C is incorrect because
 * 47) * D is incorrect because
 * 48) * E is correct because
 * 49) Question 9:
 * 50) * A is incorrect because
 * 51) * B is incorrect because
 * 52) * C is correct because
 * 53) * D is incorrect because
 * 54) * E is incorrect because
 * 55) Question 10:
 * 56) * A is incorrect because
 * 57) * B is incorrect because
 * 58) * C is incorrect because
 * 59) * D is correct because
 * 60) * E is incorrect because
 * 61) Question 11:
 * 62) * A is correct because
 * 63) * B is incorrect because
 * 64) * C is incorrect because
 * 65) * D is incorrect because
 * 66) * E is incorrect because
 * 67) Question 12:
 * 68) * A is correct because
 * 69) * B is incorrect because
 * 70) * C is incorrect because
 * 71) * D is incorrect because
 * 72) * E is incorrect because
 * 73) Question 13:
 * 74) * A is incorrect because
 * 75) * B is incorrect because
 * 76) * C is incorrect because
 * 77) * D is correct because
 * 78) * E is incorrect because
 * 79) Question 14:
 * 80) * A is incorrect because
 * 81) * B is incorrect because
 * 82) * C is incorrect because
 * 83) * D is correct because
 * 84) * E is incorrect because
 * 85) Question 15:
 * 86) * A is incorrect because
 * 87) * B is incorrect because
 * 88) * C is incorrect because
 * 89) * D is incorrect because
 * 90) * E is correct because
 * 91) Question 16:
 * 92) * A is incorrect because
 * 93) * B is incorrect because
 * 94) * C is incorrect because
 * 95) * D is incorrect because
 * 96) * E is correct because
 * 97) Question 17:
 * 98) * A is incorrect because
 * 99) * B is incorrect because
 * 100) * C is incorrect because
 * 101) * D is correct because
 * 102) * E is incorrect because
 * 103) Question 18:
 * 104) * A is correct because
 * 105) * B is incorrect because
 * 106) * C is incorrect because
 * 107) * D is incorrect because
 * 108) * E is incorrect because
 * 109) Question 19:
 * 110) * A is incorrect because
 * 111) * B is correct because
 * 112) * C is incorrect because
 * 113) * D is incorrect because
 * 114) * E is incorrect because
 * 115) Question 20:
 * 116) * A is correct because
 * 117) * B is incorrect because
 * 118) * C is incorrect because
 * 119) * D is incorrect because
 * 120) * E is incorrect because
 * 121) Question 21:
 * 122) * A is correct because
 * 123) * B is incorrect because
 * 124) * C is incorrect because
 * 125) * D is incorrect because
 * 126) * E is incorrect because
 * 127) Question 22:
 * 128) * A is incorrect because
 * 129) * B is incorrect because
 * 130) * C is incorrect because
 * 131) * D is correct because
 * 132) * E is incorrect because
 * 133) Question 23:
 * 134) * A is incorrect because
 * 135) * B is incorrect because
 * 136) * C is correct because
 * 137) * D is incorrect because
 * 138) * E is incorrect because
 * 139) Question 24:
 * 140) * A is incorrect because
 * 141) * B is incorrect because
 * 142) * C is incorrect because
 * 143) * D is correct because
 * 144) * E is incorrect because
 * 145) Question 25:
 * 146) * A is incorrect because
 * 147) * B is incorrect because
 * 148) * C is incorrect because
 * 149) * D is incorrect because
 * 150) * E is correct because

|07

title: Past LSAT Explained/PrepTest 07


text:
Past LSAT Explained/PrepTest 31

Game One
Four boys (F, J, M, P) and three girls (N, R, T) will be assigned to a row of five lockers numbered 1-5. RULES 1. Each locker must be assigned to either one or two children. 2. Each child must be assigned a locker. 3. Each shared locker must assigned to one girl and one boy. 4. J must share a locker. 5. R cannot share a locker. 6. N's locker cannot be adjacent to T's. 7. F must be assigned to locker 3. WHAT WE CAN INFER 1. There are three lockers assigned to one child only (R and 2 boys, which could be F, M, or P) 2. There are two lockers that are shared (J, N, and T). 3. Because N and T must share lockers, shared lockers cannot be adjacent to each other.

Question 1
E is the correct answer choice. We found this out by looking at the inferences we made from the rules. If at least one child must be assigned to the locker, that would leave two people who would have to share a locker. We know that R must have her own locker and that J must share a locker (Rules 4 and 5). We also know that since shared lockers must be assigned to one girl and one boy, we know that J will share a locker with either N or T. That's one shared locker down, which leave N or T, one of who must share a locker with one of the following boys F, M, or P. We do not know which boy MUST share a locker out of that group. So that leaves J, N and T as the only children that MUST be assigned to a shared locker.

Question 2
We must find what MUST be true when T is assigned to locker 3 and M is assigned to locker 1 alone. Let's draw a diagram. 1. M 2. 3. F/T 4. 5. According to Rule 6, N cannot be assigned to lockers 2 or 4. We also know from Rule 4 that J must share a locker and if he is sharing a locker then it has to be N because T is sharing a locker with F, who according Rule 7 must assigned to locker 3. That means that J and N must be assigned to locker 5. Answer choice (B) comes the close to stating that.

Question 3
We must find which answer choice which shows which lockers CANNOT be shared, if all of the boys are assigned to consecutively numbered lockers and J is assigned to locker 5. Let's look at what the diagram would look like: 1. 2. M or P 3. F 4. M or P 5. J According to the Rules and the Diagram, R would have to be assigned to locker 1. Since R doesn't share a locker, any answer choice that doesn't contain locker 1 is wrong. We've now narrowed the answer choices down to (C) and (D). Now let's look at what other locker CANNOT be shared. Since Juan must share a locker with either N or T, and he is assigned to locker 5, that means that locker 4 CANNOT be shared because N and T cannot have adjacent lockers. This leaves only answer choice (D) as the correct answer choice.

Question 4
At first glance this seems like a difficult question, but it's really not. The trick to Logic Games is to take a deep breath, read the question and know exactly what it says. This question ask you to find the maximum number of lockers J can be be assigned to after R has been assigned a locker. Take a look at the following diagram: 1. R 2. J (possibly) 3. F 4. J (possibly) 5. J (possibly) According to the above diagram, if we only know where R and F (because of the rules), then we can try to find out all of the possible lockers J could be assigned to. If we were to say that R was assigned to locker 2, J would still have a maximum of three lockers to choose from. (C) is the correct answer choice.

Question 5
This question is asking if the three girls were assigned to the first three lockers, then what MUST be true. Let's take a look at the possible diagram. 1. J/N (or J/T) 2. R 3. F/T (or F/N) 4. M or P 5. M or P We know that R must be assigned to locker 2 in this scenario, because N and T cannot be assigned to lockers adjacent to each other. We also know that J has to be assigned to locker 1 because according to the rules he must share a locker and locker 3 is at capacity because of F, therefore, (A) is the correct answer choice. (B) is incorrect because the question is asking for what MUST be true not what COULD be true. Looking at the above diagram, it could be true that N is assigned to locker 3, but it doesn't HAVE to be true. For answer choice (C) see the above explanation. (D) is incorrect because it COULD be true that J and T share a locker, but it doesn't HAVE to be. J could easily share a locker with N and it would not break any of the rules. (E) is just flat out wrong. We know that that the first three lockers belong to J, N, R, T, and F only based on the diagram.

Question 6
This question asks if lockers 1 and 2 are assigned to one boy each and are not shared lockers, then who MUST be assigned to locker 4? 1. M or P 2. M or P 3. F 4. 5. What do we know? We know that lockers 3, 4, or 5 must be shared, which means N and T must be assigned to two of the three lockers. Since N and T cannot be assigned to lockers that are adjacent to each other, someone must be between them and that leaves R because J must share a locker with either N or T. So R must belong to locker to 4. See the completed diagram below: 1. M or P 2. M or P 3. F/N or F/T 4. R 5. J/T or J/N Answer choice (C) is the correct answer choice.

Game Two
A store carries ten types of CDs, both new and used jazz, opera, pop, rap, and soul. The store is having a sale on SOME CDs. RULES 1. Used pop is on sale, new opera is not 2. If both types of pop are on sale, then all soul is on sale 3. If both types of jazz are on sale, no rap is on sale 4. If neither type of jazz is on sale, then new pop is on sale 5. If either type of rap is on sale, then no soul is on sale To make it clearer all of the used CDs will be lower case: j, o, p, r, s and the new CDs will be capitalized: J, O, P, R, S. Now let's make some inferences, shall we? Rule 2: P and p --> S and s. The contrapositive of this statement would be ~S OR ~s --> ~P (Remember that p is always on sale) Rule 3: J and j --> ~R and ~r. The contrapositive of this statement would be R or r --> ~J or ~J Rule 4: ~J and ~j --> P. The contrapositive of this statement would be ~P --> J or j Rule 5: R or r --> ~S and ~s. The contrapositive of this statement would be S and s --> ~R or ~r Inference: P and p --> S and s --> ~R or ~r

Question 7
This question asks what could be the complete and accurate list of CDs on sale. These type of questions, you don't necessarily have to make a diagram. You can look at the rules and eliminate any answer choice that breaks the rules. (A) is incorrect because it violates rule 3. If both types of jazz are sale then no rap can be on sale. As the answer choices, both types of jazz are on sale as well as new rap. (B) violates rule 5. (C) violates rule 4. (D) violates rule 2. (E) is the correct answer choice by process of elimination. However, if you really want to know why this is the correct answer choice... The contrapositive of rule 4 states that if new Pop is on sale then either new jazz or used jazz is on sale. This answer choice meets that criteria, while also being in compliance with the rules for this game.

Question 8
This asks what must be true if S is not on sale. This is one of the few times that we do not need to draw a diagram because the information is already at hand in the conditional statement diagrams and their contrapositives. Looking at the contrapositive of rule 2. If either soul CD is not on sale, then no new pop is on sale. That HAS to be true because it's part of the rules. (E) is the correct answer choice. Let's take a look at why the other answer choices were wrong.

Question 9
Beware of this question. You have to pay attention. This question is if both types of jazz are on sale then what is the minimum number of NEW CDs that could be on sale. Let's start by assuming that all of the new CDs are sale, and then let's use the rules to eliminate any new CDs that CAN'T be on sale. There are a total of 5 new CDs. We know that New Opera is not on sale, according to rule 1, so that brings us down to four NEW CDs on sale. Looking at the contrapositive of rule 4, we can cross new Pop off the list, so that leaves down to three CDs on sale: new jazz, new rap, and new soul. Looking at the contrapositive of rule 2, if new soul is not on sale, then new pop is not on sale. We already crossed off new pop, and not we can cross off new soul, because by doing so means that we are still in compliance with the rules. That leaves us with two new CDs on sale: jazz and rap. Let's see if we can cross off rap without violating any rules. Take a look at the contrapositive of rule 3. If we kept either type of rap on sale, then it would violate that rule, therefore, rap cannot be on sale. That leaves us down to only one new CD on sale and that would be jazz. Answer choice (A).

Question 10
This question asks what CANNOT be true. There are no restrictions, so we need to go through and eliminate all of the incorrect answer choices. (A): There is no rule regarding used opera, so it is POSSIBLE that used opera could not be on sale. This by itself would make this answer choice wrong. However, we can look at the statement that neither type of rap is on sale. There is no rule that tells us what happens with neither type of rap is on sale. (B): If neither type of jazz is on sale, then new Pop must be on sale according to rule 4. Since that would mean that both types of pop are sale (rule 1), then that means all soul is on sale. The first part of this answer choice doesn't violate any of the rules. Looking at the second part of the answer choice, there are no rules governing used opera, we only know that new opera is not on sale. It is very possible that used opera is not on sale as well. Remember we are looking for what CANNOT be true. (C): Skipping the part about the opera, let's look at the second part of the answer choice that states neither type of soul is on sale. Remember that on the LSAT, either can mean at least on of the two, possible both. So according to the contrapositive of rule 2, if either type of soul is not on sale then new pop is not on sale. We can say that both new and used soul is not on sale, so that means that there is no new pop on sale. Taking a look at the contrapositive of rule 4, if there is no new pop on sale, then either new jazz or used jazz could be on sale. If both new and used jazz are on sale, then no rap could be on sale. This scenario doesn't break the rules. (D): If neither type of jazz is on sale, then new pop is on sale and if both types of pop are on sale, then all soul is on sale, but this answer choice states that neither type of soul is on sale and that cannot be true. This is the correct answer choice. (E): If neither type of jazz is on sale then new pop is on sale. If both new and used pop are sale then all soul is on sale. If all soul is on sale then neither type of rap could be on sale. This doesn't violate any of the rules. This is not the correct answer choice.

Question 11
This question asks what CANNOT be true if neither type of jazz is on sale. If neither type of jazz is on sale then new pop is on sale. If both new and used pop is onsale then all soul is on sale. If all soul is on sale, then no rrap is on sale. That leaves only answer choice (A) as the only option that CANNOT be true.

Question 12
This question asks what CANNOT be true if new soul is the ONLY new CD on sale. It is important to look at what the question stems states. Getting the details of the question stem wrong could mean that you get the incorrect answer! If new soul is the ONLY new CD on sale, then both types of rap cannot be on sale according to the contrapositive of rule 5, so that eliminates answer choice (C). If both types of soul are not on sale, then new pop is not on sale, and if new pop is not on sale then either type of jazz is on sale. Since we know that new jazz is not on sale, used jazz HAS to be on sale. Answer choice (A) states that it is NOT on sale and that cannot be true.

Question 13
This question ask what could be true if four out of the five used CDs were the ONLY CDs on sale. Remember to pay attention to the details. We know that used pop is one of the four CDs that would be on sale, so that leaves down to three used CDs. Let’s start with finding which used CDs could not be on sale. We’ll start with used, because Rule 4 is negative. If both types of jazz are not on sale, then new pop is on sale. Well that violates what the question is stating, so used jazz MUST be on sale. That eliminates answer choices (A) and (D). Looking quickly at answer choice (E) we can eliminate that right away because if both used rap and used soul are not on sale, then that violates the conditions set forth in the question. That leaves us down to answer choices (B)and (C). Used opera is a free agent. So let’s skip that for a second. According to rule 5, if used soul is on file, then neither type of rap could be on sale. (C) is the correct answer choice.

Game Three
Monday through Friday will only be a total five tours of three divisions, Operations, Production and Sales. RULES 1. Each division is toured at least once 2. Operations are not toured on Monday 3. Production is not toured on Wednesday 4. Sales if toured on two consecutive days and no other days. 5. If operations is toured on Thursday, then Production is toured on Friday 6. Contrapositive: If Production is NOT toured on Friday, then Operations is not toured on Thursday. For this particular game, it is best to draw a diagram in order to better visualize the different scenarios required by the questions.

Question 14
(A): Is it possible for the division that is toured on Monday be toured on Tuesday? Well, yes. Sales must be toured on two consecutive days only. That’s the only restriction. So this scenario is entirely possible. (B): Based on this answer choice, we know that O and S is not the division they are talking about because O cannot be toured on Mondays and S can only be toured on two consecutive days. So that leaves P. Because there are five tours we know that two divisions will be toured twice, one of those will be S, but the other could be either O or P. So it is possible that P could be toured on Monday and Friday. (C): If the division toured on Tuesday is also toured on Thursday, that would mean S couldn’t be toured on two consecutive days. That would violate the rules and therefore this is the incorrect answer choice. (D): This means that S has be toured on Monday and Tuesday. Since P cannot be toured on Wednesday, then it means that O is the division that is toured on Wednesday and Friday, which would leave P to be toured on Thursday. Does this break any rules? No. Why? Because according to the contrapositive of rule 5, if P is not toured on Friday then O is not toured on Thursday and this scenario fits that bill. (E): According to rule 5 it cannot be rule O that is toured on Thursday and Friday, which leaves P and S. Remember P can toured on Friday, without O being toured on Thursday. Remember your conditional reasoning! Let’s say that it is S that is toured on both days. That would mean P could be toured on either Monday or Tuesday or O could be toured on either Tuesday or Wednesday. Both of those scenarios could be true. So this is the incorrect answer choice.

Question 15
This question asks what could be true if Sales and one other division was toured on two consecutive days. You could diagram this easily, but for now, let’s just reason our way through it. (A): If O is toured on Thursday that means that P is toured on Friday. This answer choice states that P is toured on Monday. We concluded from the rules is that either O or P must be toured twice. For this answer choice, P is toured on Monday and Friday, S would be toured on Tuesday and Wednesday. But the question asks what could happen if besides S, that O or P were toured twice consecutively. This answer choice is proven to be wrong because P is not toured on consecutive days. (B): This is the correct answer choice. Why? If P is toured on Tuesday and S on Wednesday that means that S is also toured on Thursday. Since O cannot be toured on Monday, due to the rules, it has to be toured on Friday, which means P has to be toured on Monday. So on Monday and Tuesday P is toured and Wednesday and Thursday S is toured and O is toured on Friday. (C): If O is toured on Tuesday and P is toured on Friday, that means S has to be toured on Wednesday and Thursday. That leaves Monday open for a tour. It can be S because it only has the two consecutive tours and it can't be O because O is not toured on Monday, so that leaves P. The question is looking for the answer choice that shows that either O or P can be toured consecutively along with S, this is not the case. (D): If S is toured on Monday and O is toured on Friday, that means S is also toured on Tuesday. That leaves P to be toured on Thursday, which leaves O to be toured on Wednesday and Friday. Again this violates what the question is asking. (E): If S is toured on Wednesday and P is toured on Friday, that means that O cannot give any consecutive tours. It looks like P can do consecutive tours on Thursday and Friday. However, if that happens then O must be toured on Tuesday, which means S cannot be toured on consecutive days. That breaks one of the rules.

Question 16
This question asks which day must P be toured, if there is a division that is toured on Tuesday and Friday. There are two possible scenarios. See Below for Scenario 1: ♥ = day toured; ♦ = day NOT toured In scenario 1, O is not toured at all. If P is toured on Tuesday and Friday, then S must be toured on Wednesday and Thursday. That leaves Monday free and it has to be O. But wait, O can't be toured on Monday, according to the rules. This scenario is invalid. In scenario 2, if O is toured on Tuesday and Friday, then on Wednesday and Thursday S must be toured. That leaves Monday open and P can be toured on Monday. There is no scenario 3, because S cannot be toured on days that are not consecutive. According to this scenario, P MUST be toured on Monday, which is answer choice (A).

Question 17
This asks what could be true if a division is toured on Monday and it is NOT toured on Tuesday. So let's draw another diagram: The above scenario is the only scenario that would work. O can't be toured on Monday, and if S is toured on Monday, then MUST be toured on Tuesday, which defies what the question is asking. We did not have to fill in the rest of the diagram because there would be so many different possibilities. Because P has to be toured on Monday, we can eliminate answer choices (A), (B), and (C). Looking at answer choice (D), the question states that if a division is toured on Monday, then it CANNOT be toured on Tuesday, so we can eliminate this answer choice. Late leaves answer choice (E) as the correct answer choice.

Question 18
This question asks what must be true if a division is toured on Tuesday and is also toured on Wednesday. So let's take a look at some diagrams, shall we?: According to the only two scenarios, P is always toured on Monday. People couldn't be toured on Tuesday and Wednesday, because P cannot be toured on Wednesday. In both scenarios where both O and S are toured on Tuesday and Wednesday, P is toured on Monday that is answer choice (A).

Game Four
A crew of up to five members must complete five tasks in at most three days. The tasks have to be completed in the following order: framing, wallboarding, taping, sanding, and priming. 1. G = taping 2. H = sanding and priming 3. I = framing and priming 4. K = framing and sanding 5. L = wallboarding and taping 6. M = sanding 7. O = wallboarding and priming RULES 1. at least one task is completed a day 2. taping and priming are completed on different days 3. each member does at least one task 4. each member does no more task a day 5. each task is done by exactly one worker 6. each task is completed the day it is started and before the next task begins. Let's simplify this a bit. taping = I and K; wallboarding = L and O; taping = G and L; sanding = H, K, and M; priming = H, I, and O.

Question 19
This answer choice which could be a complete and accurate list of members of the crew. In order to find the correct answer choice, we need to looking at the order in which the work can be done. Framing is the first task only I and K can complete framing. this eliminates answer choice (E). Wallboarding is the second task and only L and O can complete this task. This eliminates answer choice (A). Taping is the third task and only G and L can complete this task. This eliminates answer choices (C) and (D). That leaves answer choice (B) as the correct answer.

Question 20
This question asks, if the installation takes three days and if the same two crew members work on the first and third days, then which pair of the crew members who could work on those two days. First we need to find out what work could be done on which days. We know that two people will be working on the first and third days, so that means on the first and third days two tasks must be completed, because according to rules 4 and 5 state that each member does no more than one task a day and each task is done exactly by one worker. The tasks also have to be completed in a specific order. So on Monday, framing and wallboarding have to be completed on Monday and on Friday sanding and priming have to be completed. Let's look at the list of crew members who can work on framing and wallboarding. Framing: I, K and Wallboarding: L, O. Now let's look at the list of crew members who complete sanding and priming. Sanding: H, K, M and Priming: P, I, O. Now we look for the common members which would be I, K, O. (A): H cannot complete framing and/or wallboarding, so this eliminates this answer choice. (B): I and K could work on both days, however only both can complete framing but not wallboarding. This eliminates this answer choice. (C): While the tasks framing and wallboarding can be completed by I and L, L doesn't not complete neither sanding nor priming. This eliminates this answer choice. (D): K and O can complete framing and wallboarding as well as sanding and priming. This is the correct answer choice. (E): This leaves framing without anyone to complete this task and only priming would the be only task completed as O is the only one that could work on day three.

Question 21
This questions what us to find the answer choice that cannot be a complete and accurate list of the crew members. (A): This is the correct answer choice because L or O must be included in the list as they are the only two that can complete the wallboarding task. Neither of them are included in this list and there this cannot be the complete and accurate answer choice. (B), (C), (D), and (E) are the incorrect answer choices. Remember in order for the list to be complete we need to have either L or O included in the list. Or we need to have either I or K.

Question 22
This answer choice asks what could be a list of all of the crew members that can work on day two, if the installation takes three days and sanding is done on the third day. There are two possible scenarios. Scenario 1 Day One: framing and wallboarding - [I, K] and [L, O] Day Two: taping - [G, L] Day Three: sanding and priming - [H, K, M] and [H, I, O]

According to this scenario, G and L are the only two that can work on day two. Let's look at scenario 2 now. Scenario 2 Day One: framing - [I, K] Day Two: wallboarding and taping - [G, L] and [L, O] Day Three: sanding and priming - [H, K, M] and [H, I, O] According to this scenario, the list of everyone who can work on day two is G, L, and O. Any answer choice that includes G, L, or O or any combination of thereof. This leads us to answer choice (E).

Question 23
This question asks which could be a pair of members of the crew both of whom work on the same days as each other and perform two tasks. We can use the diagram created for the previous question. (A): is not the correct answer choice because both only complete one task each. (B): According to the question, they each have two tasks to complete, that a total of four tasks between the two of them. In this case, H and K complete only three of the four. (C): Between the two they can complete four tasks. In order for them to work on the same day taping and priming would have to be completed on the same day and that violates rule 2. (D): This is the correct answer choice. Both K and L can complete a total of four tasks. Both K and L can work on the same day. (E): Between the two of them they could complete only three tasks.

Question 1
Identify the Question Stem :Point at Issue (D) is the correct answer choice. Why? Point at Issue questions ask you find the statement or topic that the two speakers disagree with. It means that for every answer choice, one of the speakers has to agree with the statement or topic and the other has to disagree.(D) does this. The Moralist would agree with this statement, while the TV talk show host would not agree with this answer choice. (A) The moralist doesn't mention censorship in his statements at all. He doesn't agree or disagree. The only person affected is the TV talk show host because he would disagree with that statement. (B) To some extent both the moralist and the TV talk show host both agree with this statement. Remember, the question stem asks you find what the moralist and TV talk show host disagree with, not what they both agree on. (C) This statement only affects the moralist as he would agree with that statement. The TV talk show host never mentions the influence of peoples conception of what is the norm. (E) This statement only affects the TV talk show host as he implies that it would be wrong to not let viewers decide what they want to see. The moralist never talks about this in his statements.

Question 2
Identify the Question Type : Assumption Identify the Conclusion : "...the search for a parasite has so far been wasted effort." Pre-phrase : Parasites that kill sweet potato whiteflies will not kill silverleaf whiteflies. (D) is the correction answer choice. If we logically negate this statement, it would say that some parasites of the sweet-potato whitefly is also a parasite of the silverleaf whitefly. If that were true then the whole argument would collapse. In order for the argument to be true, No parasite of the sweet-potato whitefly is also a parasite of the sliverleaf whitefly. (A) According to the stimulus only one variety of the whitefly has RECENTLY become a serious crop pest. No where in the stimulus does it say or imply that all varieties are serious crop pests. If we negate this statement (Not all varieties of the sweet-potato whitefly are serious crop pests), does it have any effect on the argument? No. ''Sometimes you do not need to negate every single answer choice. Narrow down the answer choices to at most two or three and then negate the sentences'' (B) This is a very general conditional statement. The stimulus was very specific and only mentioned that there was ONE type of whitefly that was becoming a serious crop pest. Anytime the stimulus mentions specifics and an answer choice is very general, unless it is a Principle Question, the answer choice is very much likely to be wrong. (C) Does this statement as it is have any effect on the argument? No. This answer choice is beyond the scope of the argument and is therefore the wrong answer choice. (E) Regardless of whether or not the entomologist found parasites of the sweet-potato whitefly, it has no bearing on the argument. The stimulus specifically talks about the SEARCH for the parasite.

Question 3
Identify the Question Type: Flaw in Reasoning Conclusion: There is none Pre-phrase: Female patients are the best people to poll. (C) is the correct answer choice. The question stem asks you to find the flaw in the program's plan, which is to poll doctors and ask whether female physicians are more sensitive than male physicians to the needs of their female patients. The best person to ask this question are the female patients, not the physicians. ''Always try to pre-phrase answer choices. It makes finding the correct answer choice quicker and easier'' (A) is an incorrect answer choice because as our pre-phrase female patients are the best judges of whether female physicians or male physicians are more sensitive to the needs of female patients. (B) is an attractive answer choice because how would a woman be able to tell the difference between the type physicians if she has never been treated by a female physician? But the best answer choice still would be (C) because female patients are the best people to poll to get an accurate reading. (D) is an incorrect answer choice because it is way out of scope. No where in the stimulus is medical research mentioned. (E) is an incorrect answer choice because again it is out of scope. The stimulus discusses whether or not certain types of physicians are more sensitive to female patients' needs. It does not discuss female patients becoming more involved with managing their medical care.

Question 4
Identify the Question Type: Main Point Conclusion: "The practice of using this therapy to treat the illness cannot be adequately supported by the claim that any therapy for treating the illness is more effective than no therapy at all." Pre-phrase: It is not enough to just treat the illness (E) is the correct answer choice. By finding the conclusion of the argument for Main Point questions, all you need to do is find the answer choice that rephrases the argument's conclusion. In this case, answer choice (E) is the only answer choice that rephrases the conclusion. On most Main Point Questions, it is tricky finding the conclusion, because it is almost never the last sentence in the stimulus and there is almost never any conclusion indicators. (A) is an incorrect answer choice because the conclusion states that practice of using the therapy cannot be supported by the claim that any therapy for treating the illness is more effective than no therapy at all. This answer choice simple just restates what the author is arguing against. (B) is an incorrect answer choice because the stimulus doesn't mention anything about the effectiveness of the treatment. This is slightly beyond the scope of the argument. (C) is an incorrect answer choice because this is a restatement of one of the premises. Anytime an answer choice repeats or rephrases a premise in the stimulus, it will ALWAYS be the incorrect answer choice for Main Point Questions. (D) is an incorrect answer choice. Remember the stimulus conclusion. The doctor only states that the expense and complication of the treatment must be taken into account. He makes no claim about the effectiveness of the therapy. (E) is the correct answer choice because it restates the conclusion of the stimulus.

Question 5
Identify the Question Stem: Strengthen/Support Identify the Conclusion: "...so advertising time will be no harder to sell next fall than it was last fall." Prephrase: There is something that is happens that makes more people watch television advertising. Method of Reasoning: Author concludes that selling advertising won't any harder than before because advertisers will continue to profit despite the increased costs in advertising time. (A): If the costs production and distribution products advertised and along with the increased costs in advertising means that advertisers may not be willing to buy advertising time. This is the incorrect answer choice. (B): This system for rating audience size is not mentioned in the stimulus. Even if the system changed, the answer choice doesn't specify how it will affect advertisers. This does not strengthen the answer choice. (C): What does the size of the advertising blocks have on the argument? They don't. This goes beyond the scope of the argument. (D): The stimulus doesn't differentiate between advertisers who sell products and those that sell services. This is beyond the scope of the argument. (E): This is the correct answer choice. If people are watching more television, then they are watching more advertising, and if they are watching more advertising, that means that the increased advertising costs are defrayed by the increased number of people watching advertising.

Question 6
Identify the Question Stem: Weaken Identify the Conclsuion: "...most people can diagnose swimmer's ear in themselves without ever having to consult a physician." Prephrase: Show that people did consult with a physician before diagnosing themselves. Method of Reasoning: Author bases the conclusion on a study. (A): We are looking to undermine the conclusion in the stimulus. This answer choice undermines the person or persons who believe that most people lace the expertise for diagnosing swimmer'sear, which actually strengthens the stimulus's conclusion. (B): Believing that they had other ailments that they did not have, is beyond the scope of the argument. The argument concerns itself with patients' diagnosing swimmer's ear. This is the incorrect answer choice. (C): This is the correct answer choice. It's the closes to our prephrase. Even if you were unable to prephrase you should know that this is the correct answer choice. Why? If people had swimmer's ear before and was diagnosed by a physician then when they have again, they may be more likely to correctly diagnose themselves with swimmer's ear the second time around. If that is the case, then the patients needed a physician to diagnose them in the first case. This undermines the conclusion. (D): Does the stimulus mention anything about doctor's who specialize in ear disease? No. Does this have any bearing on the argument? No. Incorrect answer choice. (E): Is the stimulus concerned with the treatment of swimmer's ear? No. This is beyond the scope of the argument.

Section IV
|31

title: Past LSAT Explained/PrepTest 31


text:
User talk:Jasper.Friedman

Australian History/1920s
Hello Jasper,

a nice welcome to the English Wikibooks. :)

I have deleted your hint all rights reserved in the article named in the headline. That does not fit with GNU-FDL. GNU-FDL says that everybody can use the text, also commercially, but has to name the author. As you saved your text you agreed to the GNU-FDL.

I hope you enjoy wikibooks instead of this.

Sincerely

heuler06 11:01, 9 September 2007 (UTC)

title: User talk:Jasper.Friedman


text:
User:Jezarnold

Jezarnold ?? Who am I?

 * Hometown: Worcester
 * Living Now: Reading
 * Lived in: Worcester, Paderborn - Germany, Salisbury, Newcastle Upon Tyne, Southampton, Queenstown - New Zealand, Sydney, Reading.
 * Travelled to: Tignes (February 2001 / February 2003), Thailand (June 2001), Les Arcs (February 2002), Rome - Italy (May 2004), Tunisia (November 2004), Barcelona - Spain (May 2005), Queenstown - New Zealand (May 2005 - Sept 2005), Sydney - Australia (Oct 2005 - March 2006), Fiji (March 2006 - April 2006), Roadtrip through the USA (April 2006 - May 2006)

After leaving Worcester I joined the Armed Forces as a Radio Communications Expert in the RA, where nine years travel was mostly work related.. Then went to University for four years at Southampton Institute (Now Solent University). After a year back home, I did my Snowboard Season in Queenstown and then lived in Sydney for 6 months, and then traveled on the islands of Fiji. A 5 week roadtrip across the USA (especially Route_66) has been completed as well...

Currently living in my own one bed flat in Reading with my Russian Blue Cat Booley!

I am the Networking Specialist for UK ProCurve networking by HP, where I manage the UK ProCurve Resource Centre. The PRC is a Technical Pre-Sales Helpdesk. I provide Network designs and Configurator files, General/Technical product information, Bid Support Information, Equivalent ProCurve Vs Competitive vendor solutions, Solution explanations & Free product evaluations. I am available for ALL resellers / wholesalers and end users. Contact me on [mailto:ukprc@hp.com] or +44(0)118 9769326 :)

Qualifications: BSc (Hons) Business Infomation Systems / CompTia A+ / CompTia Networking+ Currently training for CCNA / ComptTia Security+ / CompTia DHTI+

 * Personal Website - Thirty
 * Travel Photos - Flickr

 * Looking forward to more travels!!
 * Interested in - Snowboarding, film, outdoor pursuits, computing / computers, Digital photography, graffiti, web2.0, google, facebook

Thought I would lend a hand, as I discover interesting articles and important info to the area of the Military, UK, Networking, Home Automation and the Internet at large!

 Be Bold :)

 * UPDATED Jezarnold 12:00 11 September 2007 (UTC)

title: User:Jezarnold


text:
User talk:Aarons123

Come introduce yourself at the new users page. If you have any questions, you can ask there or contact me personally. – Mike.lifeguard  | talk 11:32, 9 September 2007 (UTC)

title: User talk:Aarons123